WHO IS ??????? SHAITAN (SATAN)? CORRECT TRANSLATION OF VERSE 2:14 OF THE QURAN
Those who start their conversation with the word "peace" they always remind me of the above verse 2:14 of the Quran. This is because if they don’t get what they expect from me they become extremely furious and highly abusive towards me and start throwing on me their raging fires and they don’t want to know the truth nor do they know the meaning of "peace" but they still use the word "peace "as a symbol of their recognition that they are not peaceful.
The above verse 2:14 of Surah Al Baqarah, chapter 2 of the Quran starts with the combination of conjunction and time adverb "???????" (wa iza) to mean ‘and when’, and the phrase "???????" (laqou) consists of a perfect verb "???" which is derived of Arabic root word "????" (lam qaf hamza). In the lexicon of Edward William Lane with the reference of Abu Amr and the author of ‘Taj al Aroos’, Syed Mu?ammad ibn Mu?ammad Murta?á az-Zabīdī, the same verb "??" is defined as a fissure in a rock to mean splitting or cracking something which is not the straightforward meaning of this verb but we can reach the true meaning "??" if we go into further detail of ‘fissure’ that is split or crack. When something is cracked or split its two edges are made right opposite to each other which face each other, Therefore, the correct meaning of the verb "??" is ‘to face’ something or someone. So, the Arabic dictionaries are made difficult to understand and find the correct meaning. I probably don’t need to consult dictionaries to translate the Quran but to get my work recognised and to make my research evidence based I may need an academic reference from already recognised dictionaries or literature or from the rules of recognised grammar which I normally explain in my articles. However, on the same page 3012 of google pdf of Lane’s lexicon "???" (lqi) is given to mean found, i.e. past of find, go near something or encounter with something or someone which is actually to become face to face or to face someone or to face something such as conducting face to face interview or "??????"(muqabla) in Arabic. Hence, "???" (Lqi) is facing someone or facing something and "????" (alqa) is throwing something whenever someone finds an opportunity or casting something such as "????" (alqat) means ‘she casts’. However, "????" (alqi) signifies he let fill a thing or did something as seen in the example Arabic sentences "?????? ???? ?????" to mean I did good to him, "???? ???? ???????" to mean he offered to him salutation or submitted to Him, "?????? ????" he put it into his mind or he suggested or he revealed, "???? ???? ??????" he addressed to him a speech, "?????? ????" he received it from him. So, "???" and "???" are taken to mean throwing something down or throw down but actually they portray facing something down, finding, perceiving, and its predominant application is encounter in conflict, battle or war as mentioned on page 3012 of Lane’s lexicon. Whereas, ???? or ????? means becoming face to face. Therefore, the verb of the phrase "???????" of the verse 2:14 correctly means "they faced" and "?????????" (allazina) is a relative pronoun to mean ‘who’ and because of the past sentence of the speech and due to plural addresses an appropriate plural helping verb will automatically be added with the relative pronoun "?????????" (allazina) that will be accordingly translated to mean "who were". In accordance with the context and grammatical formations of its preceding and succeeding words and in the absence of subjective pronoun or active participle or active doer the prefixed "????" (aaman) of the phrase "????????" (aamanou) will be automatically considered as an imperative verbal noun that will be only translated to mean ‘peaceful’ or those who are at peace, in the presence of its suffixed pronoun "???" (ou) which is not an active participle but refers to those who already have gone under the action of the Elative noun or imperative verbal noun "????" which grammatically does not require any active participle or subject to take an action. So, the clause "??????? ??????? ????????? ????????" (wa iza laqoullazina aamanou) of the above verse 2:14 correctly means "And when they faced those who were peaceful" or "when they faced those who were at peace"
The next phrase "????????" (qalou) means they said to them, they come down or ‘they expressed’.
The phrase "???????" (aamanna) is a combination of an elative noun that is again an imperative verbal noun "????" (aaman) which does not have its doer or active participle. Therefore, once again we are in the same situation where there is no choice of taking "????"(aaman) of "???????" (aamanna) into any other meaning except to mean ‘peaceful’ and suffix Alif (???) in the end of the phrase "???????" is usually called “Alif Maqsurah” (??? ??????) which always follows a fat?a and singles out the phrase which stands out and highlighted that is literally translated to mean ‘a’ in a sense of ‘one or highlighted in inverted commas to make it prominent. So, the phrase "???????" (aamanna) correctly means a peace or "peace" in inverted commas but it is falsely translated to mean "We believe". I understand that our scholars are badly stuck with their pagan belief due to which they will have to bring in the translation of the Quran ‘an anti-God entity’ or a power opposite to God’s power called Satan but I fail to understand as to how they invent "we" from the phrase "???????"? Whereas, a layman knows that in Arabic language "??????" (nahnu) is used to mean "we". If they think that the sign of emphasis (Shaddah or Tashdeed) on the letter Nun (??) of "???????" makes it "???? ???" (aaman+na) and "???" (na) of this phrase "???? ???" (aaman+na) is a first person plural subjective pronoun to mean "we" then for sure they are wrong. Firstly, the sign of Shaddah or Tashdeed (?) does not produce or substitute of any new word in any phrase or compound but it is used on a consonant of certain words to make them causative in which their functions are highlighted and cause is emphasised. Such causative words are defined as adjective, noun and typically a verb, that has the meaning of causing something to happen, which also means that someone helps to cause something to happen. The big example of this is the word "????" (Allah) on the consonant ‘Lam’ (??) of which the same emphasising sign Tashdeed (?) or Shaddah is used which signifies Allah’s help to cause everything to happen. Likewise, Tashdeed (?) or Shaddah on the consonant ‘Nun’ (???) of the phrase "???????" emphasises its function as an imperative verbal noun of ‘peace’ and “Alif Maqsurah” (??? ??????) in the end of phrase "???????" highlights and stands out "????" (peace) further by making it single which is the actual function of “Alif Maqsurah” (??? ??????). Secondly, even if outside the rule, we break "???????" into "???? ???" (aaman+na) and take "???" (na) as a first person plural pronoun then again "???" (na) will be an objective pronoun which cannot be taken to mean "we". If they still take this objective pronoun "???" (na) to mean "we" then will they translate the actual phrases of objective pronoun such as "????????" (Rabba na) to mean "We are Rabb" instead of "our Rab" or "our Lord" ???
Obviously not, and also they will not break the phrase "????????" (Rabba na) in to "??? ??? ???" (Rab+ba+na) because of having Tashdeed (?) or Shaddah on the consonant ‘Ba’ (????) of the phrase "????????" but to satisfy their pagan itch they deliberately break the phrase "???????" into "???? ???" (aaman+na) and take "???" (na) as a first person plural pronoun to falsely translate "???????" to mean "We believe" (Free Minds, Yousuf Ali, Pickthal, Saheeh, Hilali, Khalifa, JM Rodwell, Arberry, Ahmed Ali, Fateh Muhammad Jalandhary, Abul Ala Maududi), "We have attained belief" (so called Quran Expert Shabbir Ahemd), "We believe [as you believe]" (confused Asad and Perwaiz)
The combination of conjunction and adverb "???????" (wa iza) is coming once again to mean ‘and when’, and the next phrase "???????" (khalaou) is a combination of perfect verb "????" (khala) and subject pronoun "??" (ou). The verb "????" (khala) is actually derived of Arabic root word "???" (Hamza Kha Lam) but in the translation of the Quran our ignorant scholars always take it from Persian word "?????" (takhliya) and falsely translate its derivatives to mean ‘alone, ‘go private’ or ‘privately’. Mughal emperors of Persian origin frequently used this Persian word "?????" (takhliya) when they wanted to be alone or whenever they needed privacy. In world famous Bollywood film "Mughal-e-Azam" the emperor Akbar has shown frequently using the same Persian word "?????" (takhliya) whenever he wanted to be alone or to see someone privately or in privacy. Perhaps, our scholars might have seen the said film "Mughal-e-Azam" but as usual they did not pay their attention to the script. Had they paid their attention to the dialogue of Pirthviraj Kapoor acting as the Emperor Akbar they would have rectified their mistake of taking the false meaning of Quranic words "???????" (khalaou) and "????????" (Ukhillat) and were seeking forgiveness from Allah for deriving these Quranic words from popular Persian word "?????" (takhliya) which was frequently used by Persian origin Mughal kings. Anyway, finding the correct meaning of Arabic verb "????" (khala) of the phrase "???????" (khalaou), which is derived of Arabic word "???" (ákhl) are as easy as one two three. Since, "pin" is called "??????" (Khlal) in Arabic so its verb "????" (khla) automatically defines its pinning action. Yes, this is true, all verbs are made like this and you don’t really need to consult any dictionary to find the correct meaning of most of the words which we use every day. However, just to make my articles authentic on academic levels I use some references from recognised dictionaries as an evidence of my research otherwise I really don’t need and I shouldn’t bother about collecting the reference from here and there, especially from the source which is already corrupt. So, I carefully find and chose references from dictionaries and spend a good time to filtrate the contamination of academic corruption from my references before using them in my articles.
Hence, to produce my reference, when I was looking at the verb "????" (khla) in Edward William Lane’s Lexicon on page 777 of its pdf of google book I initially found the word "??" (khal) to mean ‘scant’ with reference of Al Kisái and Al Jowhari, the author of the “?i?á?”.
Then on the same page 777 with the reference of "Taj Al Aroos" and "Kamoos" Edward William Lane quoted an Arabic phrase "????? ??????" to mean: he or it perforated the thing, pierced it through which is actually penetrate, pass through or enter and a pin was called "????" (Khlal) which pierces the things, So, the verb "????" (khal) is actually transfixing or pinning which is stapling , sticking, fixing, attaching or clipping with something or joining something. The same verb "????" (khal) also used to mean shift, pick and fix because again toothpick is called "????" (Khlal) which picks, shifts, and transfers food particles from teeth.
On page 778 of pdf of google book of Lane’s lexicon "???" (khallah) is given to mean association or friendship. Hence, the verb "????" (khla) is also used to make someone truly associate with something, junction with something or pursuing something.
https://lexicon.quranic-research.net/pdf/Page_0778.pdf
Therefore, the above reference of Lane’s Lexicon proves that the verb of the phrase "???????" (khalaou) and "????????" (Ukhillat) are falsely translated in the Quran to mean ‘alone’, private’ or ‘in ‘privacy’ and the phrase "???????" (khalaou) correctly means they pinned, they stapled, they fixed, they attached, they clipped, they joined, they associated with, they pursued something or they shifted to something.
Preposition "?????" (ila) is coming next in the verse 2:14 to mean ‘to’, ‘into’, ‘with’, ’on’ or ‘towards’, and the phrase "????????????????" (shayatinihim) is a compound of "???????????" (shayatin) and a third person plural objective pronoun "????" (him) to mean ‘their’. The word "???????????" (shayatin) is a plural of "??????" (shaytan) which is a personal attribute or personal aspect or trait of spoiling (????), burning and rage firing (???????????) and adjective of being in the state or characteristic of fire and rage, the act of which is called "???????" (shait) in Arabic that is derived of Arabic root word "???" (shen twa twa), refers to the acts of scorching, blackening something by burning, storming, turning aside from, detaching from the main issue, departing from a set course, going through life without any aim and "????????" (tajawaz) which is encroachment, exceeding the limits, going too far, overstepping all bounds and transgression.
Arabic root word "???" (SHTT), its verbs and its verbal nouns such as "????" (shata), "?????" (ashat) and " ?????" (shayt) respectively portray all evildoings and troublemaking in broad range from transgression and deviation to all kind of mental and physical abuse, physical and verbal torture, violence, bullying, harassment, exploitation, humiliation, spoiling, destruction, terrorism, cheat, exceeding the limit, anger, rage, wrath, furiousness, frustration, deviation, going out of control, overstepping, in the state of boiling mind, fiery mode, burning disposition, red hot temperament and all characteristics of fire.
Act of raging fire comes under the verb "?????" (shayt) which is an action of destructive fire that causes devastation, uncontrolled blaze of hatred and anger. Hence, an uncontrolled raging conflagration is one of the main characteristic of Arabic verb "?????" (shayt) which is really an intense anger that goes out of control like a raging fire or a wild storm, extreme hate and a roaring fire. Raging fire is very hot and fierce like a gigantic wall of raging flame which is an extensive fire that destroys land, property and people. The actions of verb "?????" (shayt) are all bad things that are very intense. Likewise, raging has countless intense aspects in psychological, social, political, economic, cultural, and in academic dimensions. Act or speaking violently or with intense anger, exploding, ranting, storming, rampage, raving, roaring, seething, simmering, outrage, temper and madness, all come under the same verb "?????" (shayt). So, the above mentioned actions are characteristics, attributes, aspects, traits and doings come under the actions of Arabic verb "?????" (shayt) and they are collectively called "???????????" (Shayateen) and they are troublemaking traits of human beings.
Therefore, "??????" (Shaytan), the plural of which "???????????" (Shayateen), is not an entity or a creature like human or animal or any invisible being but they are fiery attributes, raging aspects, scorching elements, burning features, furious properties and blistering characteristics of human beings that is why in the verse 2:14 they are mentioned as "????????????????" (shayateenihim) with their personal possessive pronoun "????" (him) like their personal belongings.
However, our ignorant scholars and translators translate this phrase "????????????????" to mean "their evils" as if they have their own personal Shaitans (???????????) like people keep their own pets, such as dogs and cats etc. Our scholars don’t feel shame inventing such absurd translations. Some traditional liars translate "????????????????" to mean "their evil ones" and some cheater Quranist invent "their own rebellious" (QXP Shabbir Ahmed 2:14) and "leaders of their party" (Perwaiz 2:14). They have been doing their best to hide the actual meaning of "??????" (shaytan) because they wanted to promote Satan and protect their false belief that "??????" (shaytan) is an invisible ever living entity of negative power which is made of fire and it is right opposite to the power of God plus our pagan scholars wanted to carry on man’s worship by promoting the pagans’ belief that God ordered Satan to prostrate to man. These were the beliefs of religions of Dark Age in which a character of powerful villain was established in all religions whose evil actions and immoral motives were important to the plot. This invisible villain was called Satan, Devil, Demon and Lucifer who was shown standing in front of God and refusing to accept God’s orders of bowing down to man. He is portrayed arguing with the Creator and challenging Him that he will misguide His people throughout their life and in front of Satan helpless poor God is portrayed as if He could not do anything to Satan except keeping quiet Himself after saying that His people will not come in his evil trap but whoever will follow him He will throw them to the Hellfire. What a justice of God is portrayed, instead of doing anything to the bloody Satan who was creating the problem, God is threatening people of sending them to the Hell fire if they follow Satan. Then God eventually says goodbye to the Satan till the day of judgement and happily fulfilled his wish to grant him an ample permission of doing battle with the whole mankind and God also awards him a liberty and power of devastation of human life and destruction of the world. Is it not an insult of God Who is the Creator, Owner and alone Possessor of everything?
The whole purpose of inventing such an evil tale was to bring people towards their made up way of worship which revolves around "man" and manmade rituals to follow instead of directly obeying the Nature and Its orders. That way of doing worship of manmade items is called religion and every religion including the religion of Islam says that this is the true way of God and the right path that saves its true followers from the Hell fire in which the followers of Satan, who did not prostrate man, will be thrown, if they don’t follow their prescribed way of life.
However, the Quran does not endorse any religion including the religion of Islam but to bring all these pagan myths in the translation of the Quran our pagan scholars invented a fake root word "???" (SHTN) with the letters Shen(?), Twa(?) and Nun(?), and falsely derived Quranic word "??????" (shaytan) from this fake root word "???" (SHTN) which you will find in almost all Arabic dictionaries to mean Shaitan, Satanophobia, Daemon; Demon; Devil; Lucifer; Satan, Fiend, Dickens, Fallen Angel, Fasten, Attach, Distant, Remote, Far, Firmly Fixed, Penetrating, Concealed, Turn away in opposition to him, His design, his aim and his direction that he was pursuing, Rope or Long rope, Twisted rope, Become and acted like a Shaitan or one excessively, inordinately, proud or corrupt or unbelieving or rebellious, or one insolent and audacious in pride and in acts of rebellion etc.
They are all fake meaning because in Arabic language other words are used for all above stated so called meaning of the fake root word "???" (SHTN). Initially, they invented the fake root word "???" (SHTN) to translate and explain the Quranic word "??????" (shaytan) as an invisible evil entity but to make it genuine in its look they added the following words in the dictionaries under the meaning of the said fake root word "???" (SHTN) such as Satanophobia, Daemon; Demon; Devil; Lucifer; Satan, Fiend, Dickens and Fallen Angel etc. Then to make this root word "???" (SHTN) more real they added the rest of the above stated words under the general meaning of the said root word "???" (SHTN) but none of them was ever derived from "???" (SHTN) and they were never used in Arabic language as derivatives of "???" (SHTN). Moreover, not the derivatives of "???" (SHTN) but other words are used in Arabic language for all those words which are given in the dictionaries under the meaning of "???" (SHTN) such as: Fasten, Attach, Distant, Remote, Far, Firmly Fixed, Penetrating, Concealed, Turn away in opposition, Design, Aim, Direction, Pursuing, Rope, Long rope, Twisted rope, Excessively, Inordinately, Proud, Corrupt, Unbelieving, Rebellious, Insolent, Audacious in pride and In acts of rebellion etc.
Furthermore, the derivatives of all genuine root words are spread in the language like essential pieces of jigsaw and they are extensively used throughout the language in different forms such as in all forms of verbs, all types of participles, adverbial phrases, gerunds, verbal nouns, active nouns, compounds, abstract nouns, possessive nouns, collective nouns and adjectives etc. But you cannot find any component, any verb, any participle, any gerund, any adjective and any noun of this fake root word "???" (SHTN) apart from only singular and plural word of "??????" (shaytan). In other words, the root word "???" (SHTN) is not active, it is not recognised and it is not used in Arabic language apart from using in the translation of the Quran to derive and to translate, and to further explain only one Quranic word "??????" (shaytan).
I am again challenging the whole world, including the native Arabs, language experts and scholars to prove me wrong with the evidence and show me where the word "???" (SHTN) and its derivatives are used in Arabic language???
If "???" (SHTN) is not recognised and never used in Arabic language as to why the Quranic word "??????" (shaytan) is translated and explained with this unrecognised false root word "???" (SHTN) ???
Do they derive the Arabic word "?????" (Rahman) from the root word "????" (RHMN) in the same way???
Obviously not! This is because "????" (RHMN) is not a root word but in accordance with the grammatical rule of making special attributes Alif and Nun are added in the end of the verb, verbal noun or source. Hence, the verb of "?????" (Rahman) is "???" (rahama) which is made a special personal attribute, special aspect or a special trait of Allah by adding "???" (aan) in the end of the verb "???".(Rahm). Likewise, "???" is the source as well as a verbal noun to mean: polite , cheerful, friendly, easy to talk, sociable, showing and inspiring friendliness, pleasant, good tempered, without hostility; amiable, obliging, affable, who accompanies or associates with or shares with others, mild, kind, fine, caring, not rough, not violent, not severe, generous, benevolent, gentle nature, affectionate and agreeable. When "???" becomes a special attributes or a special aspect or a special phase of human beings by adding Alif and Nun, i.e. "???" (aan) in the end of "???" and a special attribute called "?????" (insaan) is produced which is reserved for human being as a keeper of all attributes described under the meaning of "???" that is humanity. The attribute "?????" (Rahman) is made in the same way which is reserved for Allah and made by adding "???" (aan) in the end of "???" (RHM). Arabic word "??????" (the woman) is also derived from the same source "???" whose attributes are polite, cheerful, friendly, easy to talk to, sociable, pleasant, good tempered, without hostility; amiable, obliging, affable, mild, kind, fine, caring, not rough, not violent, not severe, generous, benevolent, gentle nature and affectionate. But traditionalists derive Quranic word "????" from "???" and some evil genus new Quranists derive the same Quranic word "????" from the root of "forgetting" and "weak". They are inspired with Persian word "?????" (nisyan) to mean forgetting and weak which is used in popular Persian phrase "???? ?????" (mardh –e-nisyan) , taken in Persian to mean illness or disease of forgetting, mental weakness or short memory. Fair enough, if these Quranists disrespect their women and consider them mentally weak but they do not have any right to declare weak, forgetting and mentally sick to all women of the world. Some thick people inspired by evil generation of the Quranists try to rectify me by leaving their comments on my articles with countless question marks that "????" is taken from the root word of forgetting or weak! They should keep their false knowledge within themselves and avoid leaving any comment on my articles with reference to their fake knowledge. I usually ignore such comments but such comments confuse the readers of my articles. Therefore, please avoid giving reference from any outside source whether it is good or bad. I will not waste my time to address such comments.
Moon was not only worshipped by Arabs as Moongod but the Moon was also considered as cool and Sun was considered as hot. Therefore, being under the Sun alone is called "???" (Ra Mem Daad) which is under the heat of Sun only when cooling of Moon is absent or not available. Therefore, "?????" (Ramdan) is made using the same rule of adding letters Alif and Nun, i.e."???" (aan) in the end of "???" which describes a special attribute of "?????" (Ramdan) when they miss the cooling of their Moongod and have to stay under the heat of Sun only. In this particular season the pagan Arabs used to keep fasts for their biggest deity Moongod. They stop eating, drinking and having sex when their Moongod disappears in the early morning and restart eating, drinking and sex after Sunset when their Moongod rises in the evening. However, they miss their Moongod and don’t eat, drink and have sex all day under the Sun alone, without having their Moongod with them who does not appear in certain days of a particular period of every year. Likewise, Arabic word "???" (sháb) means separate, divide, go into branches, split, divide into sections etc. When letters Alif and Nun, i.e."???" (aan) are added in the end of the word "???" (sháb) it becomes the special attribute of "????????" (Shában) which is the eighth month of the Islamic calendar. It is the month of "separation" because the pagan Arabs used to disperse in search of water. The fifteenth night of this month is known as the "Night of Records" (Laylat al-Bara'at) or Shab –e-Baraat or Shubraat in slang.
Exactly, in the same way and on the same pattern the Quranic word "??????" (shaytan) was made, an attribute of human beings, by adding letters Alif and Nun, i.e."???" (aan) in the end of the verb "?????" (shayt) which is derived from Arabic root word "???" (SHTT). Hence, according to its grammatical formation the Quranic word "??????" (shaytan) is a personal attribute of human beings and plural of all evil attributes of human beings are collectively called "???????????" (shayateen). This is the reason why these evil attributes, i.e. "???????????" were introduced in the verse 2:14 of the Quran with the personal pronoun of those human beings "????" who were practising their evil traits. This is also noted that in the verse 2:14 the word "???????????" came in the Quran very first time and this is general rule that first entry is always made introductory so that readers can correctly understand the further use of the same phrase.
However, our ignorant scholars and thick translators have nothing to do with the literature and linguistic rules; let alone the Arabic literature they even don’t know the language and its rules but they translate the Quran, is it not weird?
Anyway, 2:14 is the verse of the Quran in its phrase "????????????????" (shayateenihim) the "??????" (shaytan) was first time introduced in the Quran with personal pronoun of people who were practising their evil traits.
Therefore, "???????????" (shayateen) are enraged evil phases of one’s personality or troublemaking negative personality traits of human beings.
So, when they were switching themselves into their evildoings or when they were switching themselves into their troublemaking traits, is the correct understanding of the clause "??????? ??????? ????? ????????????????" (wa iza khalaou ila shayateenihum) of the verse 2:14 of the Quran which we are studying in this article.
Hence, "their enraged negative personality traits or their troublemaking evil phases" (????????????????) coming from the preceding verses, such as in the verse 2:12 they were called "the warriors" (??????????????) in which no outsider or invisible beings were sabotaging the peace except themselves who were called "??????????????" (the warriors). So, sabotaging peace, creating terror, fighting and becoming violent were all their own and personal traits. Likewise, in the verse 2:11 they were advised "not to sabotage peace "(??? ???????????), which was in their own hands or sabotaging peace was their own doing that was their personal trait. In the verse 2:10 they were told "in their mind an evilness was growing "(??? ?????????? ??????? ??????????? ?????? ???????). In other words the evilness was their own trail which was not coming from any so called outsider Satan but itself growing in their own mind. In the verse 2:9 they were called "cheaters, deceivers, swindlers and trick players "(????????????). We all know that cheating, deceiving, swindling and trick playing are personal attributes of someone. Therefore, cheating, deceiving, swindling and trick playing were not outside Satan but their own personal traits. In the verse 2:8 they were declared liars "who invent lies "(???? ????????). Lying is also a personal characteristic of someone. If you lie you cannot say that Satan was lying because it is your own trait. In the verse 2:7 their vision was called deceitful (????????????? ?????????). Again, if vision is yours then obviously the act of deceiving is your own act which is your own trait. Likewise, in the verse 2:6 they are doing evils on themselves (??????? ??????????) which is their own doing. Therefore, in the phrase "????????????????" (shayateenihim) of the verse 2:14 their all evildoings and troublemaking are gathered at one place and collectively mentioned them with their personal possessive pronoun to mean their angers, their transgressions, their encroachments, their wrongdoings, their burning rage, their fiery characteristic, their violations, their boiling manners and their raging fires. Their hateful aspects of raging fires spoil themselves, spoil others and intend to spoil the whole world. They are those encroachers, transgressors, scorchers, and wrongdoers who go through life without any aim. They exceed the limits, they go too far and overstep all bounds. They are the enemies of peace and they are danger to the whole world.
The next phrase "????????" (qalou) is coming again to mean ‘they expressed’, ‘they said’ or ‘they confessed’ and "??????" (inna) is a combination of ?????+??? in which "???" is used as a conjunction to mean: that, in order to, so as to, with a view to and as a pronoun to mean: that, such, it, this one, that one, which, whose, whom, what, these, those and as an adverb to mean: that, exceedingly, most, more, closely and widely. Suffix Alif (???) in the end is usually called “Alif Maqsurah” (??? ??????) which singles it out and makes "??????" a permanent Accusative Case (???????) of "???" in the form of "??????" that is a classical linguistic way, to bring in the statement, a feel of intensifying action, showing the purpose of an action, and manner, indicating the circumstances under which an action takes place, and to describe a condition or action going on at the same time as the main action and it is also an adverbial expressions of time or place. However, "??????" and "???" are wrongly translated in the translations of the Quran to mean ‘we are’ and ‘verily’, ‘indeed’, ‘surely’, ‘truly’ or ‘behold’ etc.
Therefore, in the above verse 2:14 "??????" (inna) was actually used to mean "that one" which directly indicates to "???????", i.e. a "peace" that they expressed to them earlier when they faced those who were at peace (??????? ???????????????? ???????? ???????? ???????). Hence, suffix Alif of "??????" not only singles out "???" to mean "that one" but also intensifies the purpose of the action of the subject, i.e. who expressed "peace" (???????? ???????) and "??????" also points towards the highlighted phrase "???????" (peace) to mention that peace (???????) by indicating it with the phrase "that one" (??????), i.e. that peace. The next phrase "????????" (maá kum) is a typical combination of "????" (maá) and "????" (kum) in which "????" (maá) is a space and time preposition and "????" (maá) means ‘within’, that is ‘inside or not further than a particular area or space with the reference of time’ which directly refers to the time adverb "?????" (when) coming in the opening clause, i.e. "when they faced peaceful people and expressed a peace" (??????? ???????????????? ???????? ???????? ???????). Whereas, "????" (kum) of the phrase "????????" (maá kum) is a second person plural pronoun of those peaceful people to whom (????????? ????????) they expressed a peace (???????????????). Hence, by using directly addressing pronoun "????" (kum) in the clause "???????? ?????? ????????" they are actually saying to peaceful people that the peace which they have expressed it could be within yourself. In other words these evils are saying they have nothing to do with that peace which they have earlier expressed to those who were at peace. So, they turned away from their earlier statement "???????? ???????" in which they expressed a peace and now when they returned to their evil traits (??????? ??????? ????? ????????????????) they indicated (????????) that one (??????), i.e. that peace is within yourselves "?????? ????????". Basically in the phrase "???????? ?????? ????????" they taunted the peaceful people and said to them in sarcastic way "that one is within yourselves" which is the correct translation of the second last clause "???????? ?????? ????????" (qalu inna maákum) of the verse 2:14 that is confirmed with their own subsequent statement "???????? ?????? ????????????????" which they have made in the last clause of the same verse 2:14, but rather we were ourselves fun seekers, but rather we were ourselves mockery makers, instead we were ourselves making fun, however, we were ourselves being sarcastic or nevertheless we were ourselves doing criticism, we were only jesting.
The last clause "???????? ?????? ????????????????" of the verse 2:14 opens with "????????" (innama) which is used to mean: however, it’s just, perhaps, rather, but rather, instead, that what, such that, such as, that which, in a view of that, as though, as that, in order to which, so as to what, with a view to what, that is what, what it is, what is which, which is exceedingly, what is more, that is the most, what is closely, that is widely, simply and merely etc. However, "????????" (innama) to mean 'but rather' is perfectly fine and a good alternative to when a group of males and females is combined, the neutral plural form is not used; rather the masculine is. 'Rather' is like 'instead'; using 'but' allows it in one conjoined sentence rather than a separate one. Since, the Quran talks about a combined group of males and females who were mocking or seeking fun by criticising or passing their sarcastic remarks and switching back into their evil habits of sabotaging peace with their intense fiery rages. Therefore, "????????" (innama) means ‘but rather’ or ‘instead’ or ‘it was just’. Whereas, "??????" (nahnu) is a first person plural pronoun to mean ‘we’ which actually works as a subject of the clause "???????? ?????? ????????????????" (inna ma nahnu mustahzioun). Therefore, the subject pronoun "????" coming in the end of "????????????????" (mustahzioun) will go back to its first person plural subject "??????" (nahnu) and with its reference it will be translated to mean ‘ourselves and according to the agreement rules the same subject pronoun "????" coming in the end of "?????????" (muztahz) also makes it plural with reference to its plural subject "??????" (nahnu). Whereas, "?????????" (muztahz) is a doer or active participle of "???????" (istehza) which is the 10th form of Arabic verb built on form 1 by adding the prefix "???" (alif sen ta) into the form 1 verb. This is often a considerative or requestive verb to mean ‘to consider’, ‘to seek’ or ‘to deem’ someone to have the quality of the form 1 verb in question or seeking something for oneself, to make something work for oneself, to use something or to put something into operation such as "???" (ámala) means "to make" or "to do" and after prefixing "???" (alif sen ta) with "???" the new form of verb "??????" (istáml) will become to mean "to use" or "to put into operation" that is actually to seek or to make something work for oneself. When Alif in the beginning of the verb "??????" (istaámal) is replaced with the letter Mem it becomes "??????" (mustáml) that is a verbal noun to mean ‘it is used’, and active participle and it also works as a passive form of the action taken in the past by its subject, especially if a particular subject is given, as seen the subject "??????" (nahnu) coming just before "????????????????" in the clause "???????? ?????? ????????????????" of the verse 2:14 that we are studying. However, "???????" (istehza) is derived from Arabic root "???" (ha za hamza) to mean flout, sarcasm, criticism, taunt, ridicule, irritate, insult, slap in the face, tease, barb, sneer, fun, poke and provoke etc. Hence, "????????????????" (mustahzioun) correctly refers to those who were seeking criticism, were being sarcastic, has been ridiculous, were making fun, were seekers of flouting, were fun seekers, were mockery makers, were doing criticism and were jesting.
The word for word correct translation of the verse 2:14 is as under.
"??????? ??????? ????????? ???????? ???????? ??????? ??????? ??????? ????? ???????????????? ???????? ?????? ???????? ???????? ?????? ????????????????"(2:14)
And when they faced those who were peaceful they used to express a peace and when they pinned into their enraged troublemaking negative personality traits they used to say that one within yourselves rather we were ourselves fun seekers.
(Word for word correct translation of Quranic verse 2:14)
And when they encountered with those who were at peace they used to express a peace and when they switched to their enraged evildoings they used to express that one within yourselves but rather we were ourselves mockery makers.
(Another version of word for word interpretation of Quranic verse 2:14)
And when they were confronted with the people of peace, they would say, "Peace" and when they would shift into their enraged evil phases, they would say, "We were only jesting with you" (Simple version of the correct interpretation of Quranic verse 2:14
Regards,
Kashif Khan
Same article in Urdu is underneath for Urdu readers.
pump attendant at Oxy
3 年Habari yako Dr kashif,natumaini umzima. Samahani kwa kukusumbua,Mimi naitwa seif naishi Tanga Tanzania.huku watu wengi wameathiriwa na traditional scholars na mafundisho ya uongo kutoka kwa wanazuoni Mfano:katika quran 16:98 tulifundishwa kuomba ulinzi kutoka kwa mungu kwa kusema audhu billahi Mina sshaitwani rajim.this is according to traditional scholars,lakini quranist wao walisema tusome suratul nnas,falaq and 23:98.sasa baada ya kusoma majarida nimeona ni tofautib kabisa, and me I don't know Arabic language.na kingereza nafahamu kidogo,Sasa unaweza kunisaidia kuniambia kilichoandikwa ndani ya Aya hizi 16:98 na 23:97-98.. na sura 113 na 114 Asante Sana Seif Ahmed From tanzania
--
3 年Brother Kashif what are your views on nawafil ( supererogatory) salah and tasbeeh of Allah like alhumdulilah , SubhanAllah etc.? Quran doesn't mention nawafil salah but hadiths do .
@Dr Kashif Khan, please how can I get these knowledges all by myself. Is there a lexicon prescribed for that?