CORRECT TRANSLATION OF VERSE 4:64 OF THE QURAN-THEY CHANGE THE "MESSAGE" INTO "MESSENGER" TO BRING IN THE QURAN THE INTERCESSION OF THE PROPHET

Dear readers,

Greetings,

A man of faith Mr Mohammed Ziaullah Khan, who has been conveying the true message of the Quran in India and giving a hard time to anti-Quran Indian scholars, asked me for the correct translation of verse 4:64 of Surah Al Nisa of the Quran. He says, he understands that Rasool (??????) is not a messenger in human form but a message and he wants to understand as to why the word Rasool (??????) has been used twice in the said verse, out of them one of the words Rasool (??????) is coming without definite article ‘Al’ (??????) and one with ‘Al’ (??????????). He also shows his reservations in the translations of this verse (4:64) and believes that our scholars and translators misuse the word Rasool (??????) to include the statement of this Quranic verse in the context of seeking the intercession of Allah's Prophet and making the Prophet a means of their salvation or forgiveness, which is contrary to the overall statement of the Quran. This is because, unlike the hadith, the Quran not only opposes intercession and means, but also interprets them as interference in the affairs of God and polytheism.

If viewed from the perspective of reality, religion and its agents, under a deliberate satanic scheme, changed the meaning of the word Rasool (??????) from Message of God to Messenger of God in order to perpetuate the personification and pagan worship that has been going on since the Dark Age and the evil thoughts of the pre-Quranic era should be imposed and implemented in the name of the Prophet. In order to persuade the naive people to adhere to their non-Quranic beliefs, more dust was thrown in their eyes that no one can be forgiven without the intercession of the Prophet or without the means of the Prophet and forgiveness will be possible only if the Prophet asks Allah. What the religion and its satanic agents wanted happened exactly, that is, the people abandoned the Message of God and seized the Prophet. In response to everything that was invented in the name of the Prophet, people began to obey them with full enthusiasm. It was falsely given the name of obedience to the Prophet which was started in its full swing instead of Obedience to God and His Message urged in the Quran. Moreover, the Quran, which had in fact brought a complete system of people's forgiveness, was left behind.

If you look at the words of Quranic verse 4:64 you will find that in this verse all the words are the same except for a few, the meanings of which we have studied in detail in previous articles on Rasool (??????).

Those who haven’t yet read my articles written on 'Rasool' (??????) are requested to read all of them in order to understand the essence of this topic in which all information about the correct meanings and composition of Quranic words and compounds, also used in the verse 4:64, are given in accordance with the true Arabic grammar which cannot be repeated in each forthcoming article due to lack of time and length of the article. Therefore, in this article, we will go into the details of only the words and compounds that are new to my readers or which have been discussed less in my previous articles.

?????????????????? ??? ???????? ?????? ????????? ???????? ?????? ?????? ????????? ??? ?????????? ??????????? ???????? ???????????????? ?????? ????????????? ?????? ?????????? ??????????? ?????? ????????? ??????????4:64

"????????????????? ??? ???????? ?????? ????????? ???????? ???????" ‘And that Our sending of a message is only for complying with Command of God’.

Since, "????????" of the phrase "???????????" is an elative as well as a command verbal noun to mean ‘cause to send’ in which "????????" is not a perfect verb (action of which is not completed). Therefore, according to the rule, "???" coming before imperfect verbs or imperfect verbal nouns cannot be a negative but treated as a relative pronoun which I have explained in my numerous articles. The grammatical rules say that "???" can be negative with perfect (past) verbs and perfect nouns only. However, to sabotage the statement of the Quran and to bring their falsification in the translation, our scholars take imperative verbs, imperfect verbal nouns or elative nouns such as "????????" seen in Quranic compound "???????????" and "????????" in "??????????" as perfect (past) verb which is against and outside the linguistic rules. This is because by taking such imperfect verbal nouns to mean a past or perfect verb they actually want to prove that sending or revealing the messages of God was the practice of the past. However, the Quran has been using these imperfect verbs for a reason which tell us that revelations or God’s message never stops and sending messages and coming revelations is an ongoing process.

In fact, "????????" in the compound of "??????????? "????????is not a past or perfect verb, but an imperfect impetrative or command verb in which it is commanded to do the work related to it but when the same imperative or command verb comes with an object pronoun, such as a first person plural objective pronoun"??? " coming at the end of the compound of "??????????? ". In such a case, the same verb becomes the infinitive verb, that is, the unlimited verb, in which there is no command to do something, but a cause, a reason or a purpose is emphasized in performing the action of such verbs. In this sense, ""??????????? actually states that "the reason for our sending" or "the cause of our sending". Hence, the words "????????????????? ??? ???????? ?????? ?????????" are actually saying, "The only reason of Our sending a message is to obey or comply with". In other words, infinitive command is being given in the compound of "?????????????" that whenever Our message comes, it is obligatory to obey. Imperfect verb does not mean a defective item, but is an Arabic grammatical term used for a verb or a verbal noun the work of which has not yet been completed and which is still going on or will continue.

However, those conmen who take "????????" ?and "??????"??as perfect or past verbs have not yet been able to answer my simple question that if the Quranic words "????????" ?and "??????" are imperfect or past verbs, then what would they call actual past verbs like "??????" and "??????" and how will they make imperative or command verbs from root words "???" and "???" in the pattern of other imperative or command verbs such as imperative or command verb "????" is made from its root "???" and "????" is made from its root "???" and so on???

However, it is a different matter that they have not permanently deleted the imperative or command verbs of root words "???" and "???" from their dictionaries and other records, and they purposely stopped using them because history testifies that these people used to burn the pages and pages of written memoirs to erase their records and their history so that no one could find any evidence of any of their statements and later they can misrepresent as they wish to manipulate things. For example, manipulating the meaning of the Quran, they claim that their central shrine was built by Prophet Ibrahim and they give its reference from the Quran by destroying the historical evidence of its construction so that people would be forced to automatically admit that if the Quran was saying this, it would be 100% correct. But very few people know the fact that the Quran does not make such a statement in its own words. On the contrary, by putting a bone in the mouth of dogs like Ibn Kathir, all these fictions were deliberately fabricated in the Arabic commentaries of the Quran and the Quran was understood from these fabricated interpretations of Arabic. When the Quran was already existed in their own plain, simple and straightforward Arabic language, several hundred years later, the purpose of translating the Quran into Arabic was to make the Quran the only meaning of what they were giving. Simply because the language is ours, the meaning will also be ours!

It is not a trivial matter that something was built by Ibrahim himself and let it remain in the possession of the Arabs in silence!

What is the ongoing war in Israel other than occupying a religiously sacred land and sanctuary?

If Abraham had really built something, it would be in the possession of the Jews today!

I feel pity for the Arab nation that despite being in their own language, they understand the Quran from the Arabic commentaries invented by the polytheists.

What could be more sad than that they have the "Message" of God in their own mother tongue to teach the path of truth, but they set aside the "Message" of Allah and seek guidance from external sources?

Nevertheless, if any adamant still wants to take "???" coming before "???????????" as a "??????????" (negative) then again it will not make any difference to the interpretation of words "????????????????? ??? ???????? ?????? ????????? ???????? ???????" which can be translated to mean: ‘And not Our sending of a message is except for complying with Command of God’ instead of ‘And that Our sending of a message is only for complying with Command of God’. Both sentences, with "???" as "??????????" (negative) and with ?"???"as "??? ?????" (relative pronoun) are giving the same meaning. This is the beauty of exceptionally strong composition of the Quran which never lets you go wrong unless you deliberately take false meaning of Quranic verses, like our scholars do because of their false beliefs.

"?????? ????????? ??? ?????????? ??????????? ???????? ???????????????? ????????" And even when their own unfairness overwhelmed themselves they came back then they really began to seek God's forgiveness

"????????????? ?????? ?????????? ???????????" And for them seeking forgiveness, the message was formed/found/compiled for them.

The correct meanings of the compound "?????????" are for compliance, for implementation and for obedience but since it is accompanied by "????????" which is used in the meaning of command, ruling, decree or warrant rather than a plain "order". Therefore, "?????????" urges for implementation and since the decree or command is complied with, according to the rules of the language, the Quran uses the compound "?????????" in the sense of "for compliance". Prefixed "??" coming in the beginning of "????????" is the letter of close relation which describes itself that the word "??????" (Rasool) is a Message (???????) that is caused to send (????????) which is actually a Command, Ruling or a Decree of Allah as mentioned in the following phrase "???????? ??????". This is another proof that Rasool (??????) is not a person but Allah’s Command, Allah’s Ruling or Allah’s Decree which is complied with. Moreover, command, ruling, degree, warrant or order comes in the form of statement or words. Therefore, this is total nonsense and absurd to call a person ‘Command’, ‘Ruling’, ‘Degree’, ‘Warrant’, or ‘Order’ of Allah !!! ?

"????????" means to return or come back after being surrounded by a situation, condition, environment and atmosphere etc. The "??"????at the end of "????????" is not the enclitic form of singular bound object pronoun of you, your or yours which is fabricated in the false translations and by no means do the meanings of this Arabic compound "????????" become what our scholars and translators have coined, such as ‘they came to you’, ‘come unto thee’, ‘come to thee’, ‘they had come to you Muhammad’ or ‘must come to the Messenger’ etc. ?

Any linguist or Arabic scholar would at least explain how and by what rule the above translations of "????????"???????were made???

In fact, the "??" that comes in the compound "????????" is part of it. For example, "???"?????means "here" and "?????"????is taken to mean "there" in which "??" is not taken as a pronoun, but "??" is actually a part of "?????"that indicates far away. You can see so many similar examples in Arabic language including the writings of the Quran. Hence, the "??" at the end of such compounds is not a pronoun but a letter of speech same as it comes in "???????". The ? suffix in demonstratives (this, that) indicates something is far away (???? that). Also, pronoun only comes if someone is directly addressed before that is the meaning and function of a pronoun which doesn’t come suddenly on its own. Therefore, on the one hand with the letter of speech (???? ????) "??" in the compound of "???????? "???, the active participle "?????" of verb "????" together with double "?" describes them being surrounded, being affected or in a state of an environment, atmosphere or condition. On the other hand, "???" (Hamza, Jeem, Kaf) is used in Arabic to mean "???? ???????" (khalfi al-tajah) meaning to return, to come back and to turn back. Hence, in order to combine the above mentioned two things that they were surrounded by a situation and come back, and to fit them into the same compound "???????? ", the double-sounding auxiliary letter "?" (alif madda) has been used to make the doer of "???" and an addition of "??" turned it in to perfect passive form"??????? " and an additional "?" was also added to sound the third person plural subject pronoun. In order to bring "???????? " in perfect passive form, "?" has been used in it in the same way as it is used to make "??????" from "???"??or "????"??from "???"?etc. The "?? " at the end of "????????" in the style of "?????" has been used to indicate "there" or to indicate that place and destination where they were to return which was "???????????????? ??????" i.e. confessing their mistakes and bowing before Allah with remorse, and walking in the right direction after amending themselves means to seek forgiveness of God.

The word "???????????" is actually the tenth verb in Arabic, at the beginning of which the letters "?? ?" are added. Such verbs are understood and translated with the additional words 'seeking', 'making' and 'acquiring' etc. Therefore, according to the Arabic grammar, in the phrase "?????????????????????" it is said that they actually sought Allah's forgiveness. Letter "??" at the beginning describes the true statement, the truth, fact and reality. Therefore, it should be indicated in the translation with additional words such as actually, really, in fact or truly etc. The verb "???????????" is derived of Arabic root word "???" means to bring something back to its proper place, to set aside, to cancel, to waive, to give up, to revoke, to amend, release, absolution, amnesty and remission etc. However, under the influence of religion it is only understood to mean "forgiveness". In terms of its practical use the closest English word for "???" is remission, For example, if someone, gets diabetes, he or she will continue to take diabetes medicine for the rest of their life, and when their kidneys stop working, they will leave this world before or after reaching the stage of dialysis. This is the example of people who have regular medicine of diabetes but who do not have this regularity, they die of a stroke or heart attack before going on dialysis. Think of this example of religion that regularly gives us pills. But another way to get rid of diabetes is called ‘remission’ which you can take as the method described by the Quran, to undo something which is wrong, in which the Quran does not give any pill like religion, but by following Quranic path, type 2 diabetes disappears automatically without any medicine and gives us life. In addition, the ‘remission’ does not damage the kidneys and does not require dialysis. This method is called ‘remission’ which you will find in all Arabic dictionaries to mean "?????" (maghfarat or maghfarah). This is the same "?????" which you might have heard people asking Allah for their "?????". I have seen my parents and grandparents raising their hands and bursting into tears for "?????" in their regular supplications or dua but unfortunately under the intense influence of religion they could not understand what is "?????" mentioned in the Quran.

By keeping in mind the Quran's word "?????" (remission) and by thoroughly researching and practicing it, I reduced my blood sugar and cholesterol. I also suggested ""????? to chronic patients with known diabetes and encouraged them to successfully eliminate their diabetes with remission (?????). In fact ‘remission’ is nothing more than saying bye, giving up, leaving or amending our lifestyle, when it does not conform to the nature of the human body, it begins to cause damage to our body. If the wrong lifestyle is abandoned and the right lifestyle is adopted, our health returns to the healthy point (????????) from where the disorder started. In this way we get rid of physical and spiritual diseases, we become healthy again and the action and purpose of "???????????" (seeking remission) is fulfilled. In simple words, a bad lifestyle is ‘sin’, the problem that arises from this is "????" (AZAB which is mentioned in the Quran) and "????????????" is the cure for what the sick or sinners have to do by following the right direction. When it comes to God's forgiveness, there is no automatic ‘remission’ from God, but God guides us in the right direction, which in turn leads to our ‘remission’. Therefore, in "???????????????" it is actually said that they sincerely apologized by abandoning their wrongdoings or false lifestyle. That is, to correct the error, they returned to the place where the error began (????????). Hence, "????????" and "???????????????" are interrelated and integral parts of each other. After reaching this stage, the word "????????" or God is coming directly and between “????????????????” and “???????” there is no word, no letter, no object and no person who asks Allah for forgiveness or pardon for anyone. However, if there is nothing between two nouns or between a pronoun and a noun coming together an inbuilt linking preposition ‘of’ or an apostrophe (‘s) automatically comes in between to connect them directly without any means. Therefore, all the translations are false in which it is fabricated that the Prophet or Messenger asked Allah for people’s forgiveness or pardon for them. On the contrary, the phrase "??????????????? ??????" is saying that "in fact they themselves sought the forgiveness of Allah"!!!

In the next phrase, "????????????? ??????", with the conjunction "?", comes the same tenth Arabic verb "???????????" which is used to seek or to acquire forgiveness, amnesty or remission and "??????" means for them or to them. So, the phrase "????????????? ??????" clearly says ‘and to acquire them forgiveness’ or ‘for acquiring or seeking them forgiveness’, "?????????? ???????????" means ‘the Message was formed for them’, ‘the Message was manufactured for them’, ‘the Message was compiled for them’, ‘the Message was found for them’, ‘the Message was organised for them, ‘the Message was prepared for them’, ‘the Message was given to them’. ?

This is the phrase "?????????? ???????????" which is misused to bring in the false translation of the Quran, the intercession of the Prophet.

Both so called Quranists and traditional liars invented the false translation of this phrase "?????????? ???????????" to mean ‘the messenger asked for forgiveness for them’, ‘the Messenger had asked forgiveness for them’ , ‘the Messenger had prayed forgiveness for them’, ‘the messenger sought forgiveness for them’!!!

Where is the word "asked" or "prayed "in this Quranic phrase "?????????? ???????????" ???

In fact, the prefixed preposition "?? ?" of "???????????" is itself proving wrong to all of them because in its grammatical formation the compound "???????????" is independent which is independently and itself telling us ‘for (??) made/ formed/found/manufactured/compiled (??????) them (???). Hence, the compound "???????????" is clearly portraying something ‘made for them’, ‘formed for them’, ‘found for them’, ‘manufactured for them’ or ‘compiled for them’. Also, the illiterate nonsense are forgetting that, in the grammatical construction of Arabic sentences, verb comes before the subject and no particle, no article, no preposition comes in between the verb and the subject. Therefore, in the sentence "?????????? ???????????" the word "??????????" cannot be a subject of the verb "??????". So, in accordance with the correct Arabic grammar, "??????????" cannot perform the action of the verb "??????". Hence, according to the correct Arabic grammar the Rasool (??????????), i.e. The Message was made, formed, found, manufactured or compiled for them.

Why this "??????????" is coming with definite article (??) this is because in accordance with the linguistic rules it should come in recognised or known form since it has been already used in the beginning of this verse therefore, second time it is coming with the definite article (??).

Arabic word "??????" means made something, manufactured something, formed something, arranged something, got something and compiled something. Also, in Arabic, "???????" and "?????" are synonymous words which mean to create or to form something but in general, ???????" is used in industries or factories of manufacturing or making inanimate objects. It is extensively used in the manufacturing of things by assembling aggregates and moulding of objects in factories from raw or recycled materials and used in the production of everyday usable item, machinery or other factory products. In other words, by using the verb "???" in the phrase "??????????? " along with "??????????", the Quran has made it very clear that Rasool (??????) is not a human being since human is not made in the factory.

Years ago, when I used to live in Saudi Arabia there was a large industrial estate in Saudi Capital Al Riyadh, called "????????" (Al Jadidiah) which was full of manufacturing industries and ceramic factories. Many Indian, Pakistani, Bangladeshi, Sudanic, Egyptian and Yamani used to work there. I went there all the way from Taif to see my cousin who was a chemical supervisor in one of the ceramic factories in "????????" (Al Jadidiah). I have heard that they have lately changed its name to industrial city. Anyway, "????????" also reflects the same proto root "? ?" of Quranic word ???" which is the verb of industrial manufacturing that has been used in the phrase "??????????? " of verse 4:64 of the Quran following the word "??????????". Hence, the phrase "??????????? " itself clearly negates that Rasool (??????) was a human being. Even after seeing these clear words of the Quran, if one calls the Rasool (??????) a human being, there is no one more foolish than him, more blind than him, more ignorant than him and more denier than him.

This article will not complete without drawing your kind attention to the last word "????????" of the above verse 4:64 which actually refers to motherly caregiving attribute of God that is actually a compassionate motherhood of Allah that portrays God as a Compassionate Caregiver Universal Mother. Since, the so called scholars of religion of Islam don’t accept motherly attributes of Allah or God since they built their religion around a man. Therefore, following their religious belief they do their best to hide this motherly attribute of Allah and always give a false translation of Quranic word "??????" to mean kind or merciful taken from phonetically similar Persian word ‘???’ which is used to mean kindness and mercy in Persian language. However, the Quranic words "??????" and "????????" are actually the derivatives of Arabic word "???" which is a womb that provides security and protective cover to a fetus inside a woman or a mother in which the little and most venerable human is taken care of and grows with complete security. All compassionate caregiving feelings of a sympathetic mother are derived from the same Arabic word "???". Therefore, in simple and straightforward words "??????" is the one who has or had a womb and obviously this is a woman who is a mother also. Hence, in Quranic word "?????????" Allah introduces Himself as a Universal Caregiver Mother which we don’t accept because our religion does not allow us to call Allah a Mother. So, we don’t accept the words of the Quran simply because of our false religious beliefs in which Allah cannot be a woman as according to them women species is despicable and lower than men species. This is the reason why so called Quranists don’t accept woman prophets because under their intense religious thoughts they openly say that women cannot be prophets because they become are dirty and impure every month due to their menstrual cycle. I have heard this with my own ears in a so called session of the Quran study of the Quranists.

Anyway, "??????" is the one who has a womb and "????????" singles it out with tanween al fat-ha which certainly refers to a mother in a wider picture and this is also a fact that no one else is more forgiving than a mother! This is the reason as to why the Quran uses "??????" or other derivatives of "???" in the verses and phrases of forgiveness because it brings Allah’s motherly feeling in such phrases! There are countless attributes of Allah which no one can imagine and no one can count them. Among them, "????????" is also a great Mothering attribute of the love of God, which we cannot deny by following the ignorant.

I fail to understand if all the people of the world and all the religions of the world, except the religion of Islam and its followers, sincerely acknowledge the mothering attributes of God, then what is wrong with us?

If we read earlier revelations of God we will correctly understand what Quran says in its word "??????". This is because there are so many things which are given in more details in earlier revelations, especially God’s attributes. That time people were not as mature as they were in the time of revelation of the Quran. Therefore, to educate people of ancient eras more detail was needed in the books of God comparing to the time of the revelation of the Quran in which compact and smart words (????? ????) were used for revision of the same message which was given in earlier revelations. This is the reason why Quran urges us to accept and believe in all earlier revelations and benefit from them but to keep us away from reading the earlier revelation our scholars invented that all earlier revelations are ambiguous and amended so that we cannot catch their lies by finding the truth from earlier messages of God. Like the translations of the Quran the translation of earlier revelations could be made corrupt purposely under the influence of religion but if you translate them from their original text you can get the true understanding of their verses as their original Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek text is not as bad as we are told by our scholars. Although, their complete original text is not available but you can still find some original inscriptions of old scriptures in their canon. You can also compare their translations with the Arabic text of the Quran and get them correct as the Quran is only a reminder of earlier messages of God.

Anyway, to make you understand Quranic word "??????" and its singled out "????????" I am quoting the interpretation of relevant portion of the following verses 66:12 and 66:13 of Book of Isaiah of Torah.

God says: "Like babies you will be nursed and held in my arms. You will be bounced on my knees"(66:12 Isaiah)

"I will comfort you as a mother comforts her child" (66:13 Isaiah)

Dear readers! After reading the above verses of the Torah, tears came to my eyes ... having seen so much love…so much compassion …. and …so much closeness ….. of God with his people ….which only a real mother can give to her children! If I don’t have my mother, then what? God is there! I am deeply satisfied to know that my real Mother, my Caregiving Mother, my Protecting Mother, my Comforting Mother and my Security giving Mother is alive and will always be alive!

Thank God I am grateful to you!

Word for word correct translation of verse 4:64 of Surah Al Nisa of the Quran is as follows.

?????????????????? ??? ???????? ?????? ????????? ???????? ?????? ?????? ????????? ??? ?????????? ??????????? ???????? ???????????????? ?????? ????????????? ?????? ?????????? ??????????? ?????? ????????? ??????????4:64

And that Our sending of a message is only for complying with Command of God and even when their own unfairness overwhelmed themselves they came back to really seek God's forgiveness and for them, seeking forgiveness the message was formed for them God is a Compassionate Motherly Caregiver to repentant.

(Word for word correct translation of verse 4:64 of the Quran)

Regards

Kashif Khan

The above article in Urdu is as under.