CORRECT TRANSLATION OF VERSE 2:10 OF THE QURAN & SPECIAL FEATURE ON QURANIC WORD ??? (MARDH) & ITS DERIVATIVES.
The above Quranic verse 2:10 begins with the preposition "???" (fi) to mean: in, among, across. The phrase "??????????" (qulubihm) is the same Quranic phrase which we have studied in detail and found the correct meaning of its noun "??????" (qulub) in the following article.
If you read the above article you will see as to how the latest research has found the correct meaning of Quranic word "??????" (qulub) which is "mind" or ability of thinking that is actually a combination of the product of heart and brain, collectively called ‘heart-brain’. Hence, the phrase "??????????" (qulubihm) correctly means mind", ability of thinking or a combined product of heart and brain.
The next word "???????" (maradhun) is an indefinite noun of Arabic root word "??????" (maradh). If you look at this Arabic word in the dictionaries and translators you will be well confused seeing the same word "??????" (maradh) to mean disease, illness, ailment, sickness, weakness, defect, disorder, unwell and dissatisfaction along with the opposite meanings such as cure, remedy, nursing, wellness, satisfaction, good enough, well, adequate, pleased, happy, agree, gratification and tolerance etc.
https://www.almaany.com/en/dict/ar-en/%D9%85%D8%B1%D8%B6/
https://translate.google.co.uk/#view=home&op=translate&sl=ar&tl=en&text=%D9%85%D8%B1%D8%B6
No matter which dictionary you are using to find the meaning of Arabic word "??????" (maradh), you will find the same contradictions in all dictionaries. I am sure, you will not get any satisfactory answer from your scholars if you ask them as to how the same word "??????" (maradh) contradicts in its meaning mentioned in the dictionaries right opposite to each other, e.g. to mean dissatisfaction and satisfaction, illness and remedy, disease and cure, disorder and good enough, unwell and well, unhappy and pleased! Don’t you think as to how it is possible to use the same word for its opposite meaning as well? In reality, a word can be either translated to mean satisfaction or dissatisfaction, either well or unwell, either illness or cure but there is no way of taking the same word to its opposite meaning as well without making any change in its construction or without using with it any negating particles such as ‘un’, ‘non’ or ‘im’ etc. They actually make us fools in the dictionaries and in other sources of Arabic language compiled to understand the Quran.
This is because by way of inventing the false translation of the Quran they misused and distorted the Quranic word "??????" (maradh) throughout the dictionaries to bring the pagan rituals of Wudu (ablution) and fasting of Ramadan in the religion of Islam.
However, the Quran is absolutely clear in its words but as usual our scholars created an on purpose confusion in taking the meaning of certain Quranic words from the root words "???" (Mem Ra Daad) and they deliberately muddled up the derivatives of Arabic root word "???" (Ra Daad Hamza) with the root words "???" (Mem Ra Daad) to stop people reaching the true meaning of certain verses of the Quran. No doubt the root word "???" (Mem Ra Daad), i.e. Mardh and its derivatives reflect disease, illness, ailment, sickness, unhealthy condition, weakness, defect, disorder, dissatisfaction, darkness, doubting, hypocrisy, unbelieving, evil belief, evilness, deficiency, imperfection, ignorance, disobedience, flagging, malevolence and deviation from what is right. Also, the root word "???" (Mem Ra Daad) is actually a synonym of Arabic words "?????" (illat) and "?????" (sqm) to mean disease, illness, ailment, sickness, weakness, evilness, defect and imperfection etc. However, the root word "???" (Ra Daad Hamza) and its derivatives reflect satisfaction, acceptability, state of good enough, fairly good, tolerance, pleasant, happiness, kind, fine, fair, giving pleasure to the mind, making you feel pleased or happy, endurable or agreeable, acceptable, adequate, clear, conclusive, convincing, decisive, definite, definitive, gratification, persuasive, pleasing, pleasure, positive, unambiguous, tending, nursing, remedy, curing, giving medical care to and working as a nurse, healthy condition, content, contentment, acquiescence, consent, permission, commendation, appreciation, agreement, approval, compliance, feelings of great pleasure, joy, thing that gives one pleasure, feeling of contentment, state of being willing and satisfactory etc.
After seeing the correct meaning of both Arabic root words "???" (Mem Ra Daad) and "???" (Ra Daad Hamza) we are going to see as to how the forgery took place in the meaning of the above root words and their derivatives, and how the confusion was created in the dictionaries and their meanings.
To falsely translate in the Quran the derivatives of root word "???" (Ra Daad Hamza) the so called legends of early Islam invented two false root words "???" (Ra Daad Wao) and "???" (Ra Daad Ya) and concealed the actual root word "???" (Ra Daad Hamza). They invented that "?" (alif),"?" (wao) and "?" (ya) are substitutes of each other therefore these letters are interchangeable and can be replaced in the root words and even in the words of the Quran.
You can have a glimpse of their words if you look at the page 1099 of the book 1 of Edward Williams Lanes Lexicon.
https://lexicon.quranic-research.net/pdf/Page_1099.pdf
On the page 1099 book 1 of Lanes Lexicon it is mentioned with the reference of the “?i?á?” that "???" (Radhi) is originally "???" (Radhu) in which the "?" (Wao) being changed into "?" (Ya) because of the kesrah. Whereas, the tribe of Teiyi said "???" (Radha) for "???" (Radhi), i.e. "???" (Radha) was original and not "???" (Radhi), quoted with the reference of the lexicon of Ibn Dureyd, author of the “Jamharah”.
https://lexicon.quranic-research.net/pdf/Page_1099.pdf
Have you seen the so called legendary work in which our legend scholars invented two more root words "???" (Radhi) and "???" (Radhu) from "???" (Radha) and lied that "???" (Radhi) was originally "???" then the tribe of Teiyi said "???" for "???", i.e. it is "???" (Radha); not "???" (Radhi).
So, "???" (Radha) is the original root word whereas, "???" (Radhi) and "???" (Radhu) are false. They did the same forgery with the root word of "????" (Salaah) which is originally "???" (Saad Lam Lam) of the proto root "? ?" (Saad Lam) but like "???" (Radhi) and "???" (Radhu) they invented two fake root words "???" (Salli) and "???" (Sallu) and concealed the original root word "???" (Saad Lam Lam). Some Quranist scholars invented a third root word "???" (wao Saad Lam). However, these scholars did not even bother to realize that vowels like "?" (Ya) and "?" (Wao) cannot come in any root word since a root word is supposed to be the remainder after deleting all vowels from a word. However, Hamza is different which is not a vowel but normally represented on top of letter Alif. Hence, you don’t need to be confused seeing Alif in the root words because this is not a vowel Alif but Hamza such as Hamza is found in the end of the root word "???" (Radha).
Anyway, there are actually two Arabic root words "???" (Mem Ra Daad) and "???" (Ra Daad Hamza) out of which different nouns of Arabic root word "???" (Ra Daad Hamza) are made by adding letter Mem (?) in the beginning of "???" (Ra Daad Hamza) like "????" (Mardha), "????" (Mardhi), "????" (Mareedh) and obviously "???" (Ra Daad Hamza) as well. Hence, the different nouns such as "????" (Mardha) , "????" (Mardhi) , "???" (Mardh), and "????" (Mareedh) of the root word "???" (Radha) look similar to the derivatives of the root word "???" (Mem Raa Daad) but they are different in meaning. However, due to this similarity in the word "???" (Mardh) of the root word "???" (Mardh) and the noun "???" (Mardh) of the root word "???" (Radha) the evil scholars of the Quran brought in the translation of the Quran all forbidden rites and rituals of al Masjid al Haram and its pagan religion. They also muddled up Arabic dictionaries so that no one can reach the true meaning of Quranic words of certain verses. On top of that they made it viral that the Quran did not use any grammar or linguistic rules so that no one can use grammatical knowledge to translate the Quran correctly. Furthermore, to entangle innocent people in their evil trap they introduced the satanic method of "????? ????" (Tasreef e Ayat) according to which they take the Quranic word "???" (Mardh) to mean illness in the translation of the most of the Quran without caring whether this word "???" (Mardh) was a derivative of the root letters "? ??" (Mem Ra Daal) or derived from the root letters "? ? ?" (Ra Daa Hamza). They are actually Persian Imams of early Islam who invented the satanic method of "?????? ????" (Tasreef e Ayat) to sabotage the actual message of the Quran. Whereas, "?????" (Tasreef) is a Persian word to mean ‘flection’ which is a ‘deformation’ or doing ‘deform’ that is the process of changing the actual shape of something by making defects in it. Hence, according to its meaning "?????? ????" (Tasreef e Ayat) deforms the meaning of the verses of the Quran and changes the message of the Quran by making defects in Quranic statements.
https://translate.google.co.uk/#view=home&op=translate&sl=en&tl=fa&text=Flection
Contrary to the method of "?????? ????" (Tasreef e Ayat) if you carefully look at the grammatical construction of Quranic verses and their context you will never go wrong in taking the correct meaning of the words of the Quran.
Therefore, the word "???????" (maradhun) which is even derived from the root letters "? ? ?" (mem ra daad) cannot be taken to mean a physical ‘disease’ or a physical ‘sickness’ in certain contexts but to mean an ‘evilness’ such as in the translation of verse 2:10. This is because the word "??????" (qulub) of the compound "??????????" (qulubi him) is not an organ or a physical part of human body but a ‘MIND’ and ‘thinking’ as seen in the modern research referred in my article on the correct translation of Quranic verse 2:7 that can be seen on the following link.
Therefore, only physical parts of human body can get a disease or sickness whereas minds or thoughts have no physique so they cannot get any physical disease or sickness as falsely translated by our scholars to mean disease or sickness in the translation of verse 2:10.
The next phrase of the same verse 2:10 is "???????????" (fa zada hum) which is a compound of prefixed resumption particle "??" (fa), gerund "?????" (zada) and third person plural objective pronoun "????" (hum). Particle "??" (fa) portrays reality, fact and universal truth and also commonly used as an adverb, adjective, or noun to indicate time, e.g. ‘then’ and ‘so’ which is used when we mean 'to such a great extent'. Whereas "?????" (zada) is a gerund to mean ‘growing beyond’, ‘higher than’ or ‘more than’ e.g. ‘growing more than’ or ‘increasing higher than’, above, ‘outbid’, be more than, exceed, go beyond, greater than, over, surpass, transcend, etc. Allah "??????" is the Arabic title of God and "???????" (maradha) is a noun of "???" (Raa Daa Hamza) to mean a gratification, a tolerance, a state of willingness and being satisfactory, an acceptable or an agreeable etc.
If two nouns or a noun and a pronoun come together without having any conjunction between them they automatically have an inbuilt “of” between them or one of them is represented with apostrophe ('s) when they are translated such as the phrase “???? ??????” (mudir al maktab) is automatically and correctly understood to mean “Director of the Office”. Likewise, the phrase “???? ??????” (kital al mudarris) is correctly understood to mean “book of the teacher” or “the teacher’s book”, a university’s president or a president of the university is called “???? ???????” (rais al jamiah) and university’s student is called “???? ???????” (talib al jamiah), engineer of electricity is called “????? ??????” (muhandis kahrbá), teacher of school is called “???? ?????” (moallam madrassa) and girls’ school is called “????? ??????” (madrassat al binat) etc. To understand more about the grammar of inbuilt connecting “of” between two nouns or having an inbuilt apostrophe ('s) on one of the pair of nouns, please read my article “Muhammad part 1” on the following link.
Hence, in accordance with the above explained grammatical rule of having an inbuilt “of” between two nouns or having an apostrophe ('s) on one of the nouns of the pair, the phrase "?????? ???????" (Allahu Maradha) will be taken to mean ‘a Mardh of Allah’ or ‘Allah’s Mardh’ and if we translate this noun "???????" (a Mardh’) to mean a disease, a sickness, an ailment, a defect or an evilness it will become ‘Allah’s disease’, ‘Allah’s sickness’, ‘Allah’s defect’ or ‘a disease of Allah’, a sickness of Allah’, or ‘a defect of Allah’ and so on. However, we all know that Allah as a God or as a Creator is free from any disease, free from any sickness, free from any ailment, free from any defect, free from any weakness and we cannot even imagine of having an evilness from God Who Himself protects us from all evils. Therefore, the word "???????" (maradha) is definitely not derived of the root letters "? ? ?" (mem raa daad) but in reality it is derived from the root letters "? ? ?" (raa daad hamza). Hence, we cannot take this word "???????" (maradha) as a derivative of the root letters "? ? ?" (mem raa daad) or to mean disease, sickness, ailment, weakness, defect and evilness etc. Moreover, those who translate these Arabic words "??????????? ?????? ???????" (fa zada hum Allahu maradha) to mean “Allah has increased their disease” or “God increases their disease or sickness” they are totally blind and don’t know Arabic at all because in this whole sentence "??? ?????????? ??????? ??????????? ?????? ???????" Allah or God is not a subject nor is He an active participle neither Allah is a doer of any increasing action or any such verb. Technically no verb exists in the above Arabic words but a gerund "?????" (Zada) is coming in the phrase "???????????" (fa zada hum) with prefixed resumption particle "??" and everyone knows that a gerund is not considered as a verb but a verb form which works as a noun. For example, in the sentence ‘walking is good’, walking is a gerund which is not a verb nor does it have a subject (????). So, the use of even gerund "?????" (Zada) in the verse 2:10 is limited to its phrase "???????????" (fa zada hum) or within the third person plural pronoun of its phrase "???????????" (fa zada hum) only in which the gerund "????" (zad) with prefixed particle "??" (fa) will be correctly translated to mean ‘growing beyond’, increasing more than’, ‘going in excess of’ or ‘outbidding’.
I challenge to the whole world including the native Arabs, all scholars and all language experts to prove me wrong and explain with the recognised linguistic rules how they can take these Arabic words "??????????? ?????? ???????" (fa zada hum Allahhu maradha) to mean “Allah has increased their disease” or “Allah increases their disease”.
However, the Arabic words "??????????? ?????? ???????" correctly means: increasing them more than (???????????) a tolerance of Allah (?????? ??????), growing them beyond (???????????) a gratification of Allah (?????? ??????) or in the broad understanding of the phrase "?????? ???????" we can translate "??????????? ?????? ???????" to mean "growing them beyond a tolerable gratification of God"
In the verses 2:207, 2:265 and 4:114, the Quran uses the phrase "????????? ???????" (mardhaat Allah) similar to the phrase "?????? ??????" (Allahu Maradha) of the verse 2:10 but the word "?????????" (Mardhaat) of the phrase "????????? ???????" (mardhat Allah) is translated as a derivative of root word "???" (Ra Daad Hamza) to mean ‘Allah’s Pleasures’ because the translators had no choice to cheat and to translate "????????? ???????" (mardhaat Allah) to mean Allah’s diseases! Likewise, in the verse 66:1, they could not translate "?????????" (Mardhaat) of the phrase "????????? ???????????" (Mardhaati Azwajika) to mean diseases or sicknesses because they did not want to say that the Prophet’s wives were sick ! Also, in the verse 19:55 the word "??????????" of the phrase "??????? ??????????" is not translated to mean disease, sickness, ailment or defect etc. So, what is the difference between the word "???????" of the phrase "?????? ???????" and the word "?????????" of the phrase "????????? ???????", and the word "??????????"of the phrase "??????? ??????????" and why "???????" of the verse 2:10 is translated to mean disease or sickness while "??????????" of the verse 19:55 and "?????????" of verses 2:207, 2:265, 4:114 and 66:1 are translated to mean pleasing ?
Moreover, the word "????????" of verses 5:6 and 4:43 and "????????" of verses 2:184, 2:185 and 2:196 are falsely translated to mean sick or ill whereas according to the grammatical construction of the words of these verses their words "????????" and "????????" are actually the derivatives of the root word "???" (Ra Daad Hamza) to mean the state of willingness or satisfaction but they are falsely taken from the root word "???" to bring in the translation the pagan beliefs of giving relaxation to sick people in the pagan rituals of fasting and ablution etc.
https://corpus.quran.com/qurandictionary.jsp?q=rDw
This is the beauty of Semitic languages including Arabic that their words are automatically built up around their correct root words by way of different particles and phrases, and grammatical formations of words coming in a sentence or verse.
The next phrase of the verse 2:10 is "??????? ??????? ???????" (wa la hum ázabun aleem) in which "???????" (wa la hum) means ‘and for them’, "???????" (ázabun) is used to mean ‘a misery’, ‘torment’, ‘suffering’, ‘hardship’, ‘trouble’, ‘distress’ and "???????" (aleemun) means ‘a painful’. Hence, "??????? ??????? ???????" correctly means ‘and for them a painful suffering’ or ‘and for them a painful distress’. The last phrase of the verse 2:10 is "????? ??????? ???????????" in which "?????" (bi ma) is a combination of prefixed preposition "??" (bi) to mean ‘with’ or ‘by’ and "???" (ma) is a relative pronoun to mean ‘what’, ‘which’ and ‘that’, which directly refers to "??????? ???????" painful torment or painful distress that they were denying, " ???????" (kanu) means ‘they were’ in which "?????" (kana) is a past tense of " ???" (is, exist, institute), " ??" (ou) is a subject pronoun which refers to third person plural subjects and "???????????" (yakzibun) is a combination of "????????" (yakzibu) to mean ‘denying’ and "???" (oun) is their subject pronoun. Hence, the phrase "????? ??????? ???????????" (bi ma kanu yakziboun) correctly means ‘with that they were denying’ in which "?????" (with that) directly refers to "??????? ???????" (ázabun áleem) i.e. that "??????? ???????" or ‘painful distress’ which is mentioned here in the verse 2:10 but the ignorant scholars falsely translate this phrase "????? ??????? ???????????" to mean ‘they are false’ or ‘they were lying’ and the thick disciples of these ignorant scholars preach that ‘they were given a painful torment because they were lying’ and they conclude this painful torment for lying instead of torment for their evilness due to which they go beyond the tolerance of God (???????????).
Hence, the current translation of all scholars of all schools of thoughts is nothing but packs of lies which must be destroyed and a standard of word for word correct translation must be fixed and maintained.
When we read anti-Quran articles in which they claim that the present Quran is not the original Quran and they sneakily try to establish doubts in the Quran by saying that the Caliph Othman burned all versions of the Quran and kept only one version which could be right or wrong and God knows what is missing in the present Quran and what was added in it, we always think as to why Othman destroyed the Qurans.
However, looking at the heaps of false translations of the Quran, one can easily understand as to why it was necessary to destroy all defected versions of the Quran to keep and circulate the standard correct version. So, the Quran which we got is the standard correct version of the Quran but its translations are all false which must be burned to maintain the correct standard in the same way as the Caliph Othman maintained after destroying the defected versions of the Quran.
Many people of weak faith and less knowledge read such anti-Quran material and despite my repeated requests to stop sending me any such material they keep sending them to me to have my views on them. I trust they will find the answer to their most concerning question as to why the Caliph Othman burned and destroyed the piles of the Quran.
Now, you can see the word for word correct translation of Quranic verse 2:10.
??? ?????????? ??????? ??????????? ?????? ??????? ??????? ??????? ??????? ????? ??????? ???????????"(2:10"
“In their minds an evilness growing them beyond a tolerable gratification of God and for them a painful distress with that they were denying”. (Word for word correct translation of Quranic verse 2:10)
Have you seen the clarity, simplicity and straightforwardness in the above translation of Quranic verse 2:10? That is what the Quran is actually saying in its own Arabic words of the above verse 2:10 but the ignorant and thick scholars translate the above Quranic words in the following nonsense style which is not even understandable.
"In their hearts is a disease; and Allah has increased their disease: And grievous is the penalty they (incur), because they are false (to themselves)" (This pack of lies was invented by Yusuf Ali). Rest of all nonsense scholars of traditional and so called Quranic schools of thoughts invented the same lies in slightly different words but the theme of all is the same in which they did not bother looking at the Arabic text of the above verse 2:10 and they blame God for increasing their disease. Those so called Quranists who take God or Allah to mean ‘laws of God’ they invented that the laws of God cause defects in their hearts and brain. So, all evils followed the same pattern and invented lies in their translations and exegesis in which they eventually blamed God or His laws.
Nevertheless, the time will come when all false translations of the Quran will be destroyed in the same way as the Caliph Othman burned the defected Qurans.
Stay Blessed Forever,
Kashif Khan
Underneath is the same article in Urdu for Urdu readers.
teacher
3 年According to my knowledge, to understand the Holly Quran , first you need to study Ghulam Ahmed Perwez sab, he will explain about the Hadith , once he clear your mind from the Hadith , then you will understand what dr. Qamer zaman sab ,Aurangzaib sab , Dr. Kashif khan sab says. if you have any (even 1% ) in your mind that some Hadiths are right then there is no chance you will understand Quran . and what these respectful persons says. hadith are completely against Quran.
teacher
3 年thank you sir ??
Educational Trainer
4 年This is a common sense that God won’t increase anyone’s illness or debauchery. Had it been this way, why would people have been blamed then. Everyone will claim that God willed for it. Even pagans would say we are innocent as Allah had destined it for us. Weird!
professor
4 年??? falls into two meanings at the same time... This was actually my problem... But you just b harsh on me its ok no issue boss... One day i will be the kashif khan....??????
professor
4 年I got it what ??? is...