Changes in commission implementing regulation(EU) 2023/989 and 2025/111

Features of COMMISSION IMPLEMENTING REGULATION (EU) 2023/989 of 22 May 2023

1.???? Introduction of changes to the requirements on maintenance licences and training organisations to enhance the efficiency of the maintenance licencing and training system,

2.???? Created provision to facilitate the type rating endorsement of aircraft on the maintenance licenses when there are no organisations approved in accordance with Annex IV to Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 offering type training on that aircraft .

3.???? ?Updatement of the basic training syllabus of the certifying staff involved in the aircraft maintenance, to enhance the efficiency of the ‘on-the-job training’ required for the first type rating endorsement in the maintenance licence category and to introduce new training methods and teaching technologies.

4. The syllabus for the approved basic courses (in all modules) has been extensively revised. New content has been added, shifted, or removed from the individual basic modules.In the examination system, this impacts the distribution of questions in the multiple-choice sections.Starting June 12th 2024 , the essay questions will only be required in Module 7A.

5.???? The amendments are based on Opinion No 07/2022(4) of the European Union Aviation Safety Agency in accordance with Article 75(2), point (b), and Article 76(1) of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139.

6.???? A sufficient transition period being be provided for maintenance training organisations and licencing authorities to adopt changes. ( Article 1(1) and Article 2 shall apply from 12 June 2023 and rest of the regulation 12 June 2024.)

7.???? Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/1360(5) amended Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 to include references to data and information used for continuing airworthiness.

8.???? Inadvertent deletion and some inadvertently addition. (Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/1360 inadvertently deleted point (3) of point M.A.302(d) of Annex I (Part-M) to Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 and points (3) to (9) of point ML.A.302(c) of Annex Vb (Part-ML) to that Regulation, which should have been retained. Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/1360 also inadvertently added another point (e) to point M.A.502 of Annex I (Part-M) to Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 instead of replacing it.)

9. ANNEX III (Part-66) to Regulation (EU) No 1321/201 amended as follows

-Procedure established for the approval of multimedia-based training (MBT) courses

-Appendix III replaced by new one as " Aircraft type training and type evaluation standard – on-the-job training (OJT)"

-Appendix IV is replacedby "Experience and basic knowledge modules or partial modules required for extending a Part-66 aircraft maintenance licence"

-Appendix IX added as " Assessment method for the multimedia-based training (MBT)" (66.B.135)

10. Appendix II

1.13 The maximum number of attempts for each examination is three in a 12-month period.

‘1.14 While it is accepted that the subject matter of the questions may be the same, the questions used as part of the MBT learning programme shall not be used in examinations.’;

11. Appendix III

6.On-the-job training (OJT)

6.1 General

6.2 OJT content and OJT logbook

6.3 Final assessment of the applicant

6.4 Requirements for mentors and assessors

Mentors and assessors are maintenance staff with the following qualifications:

(i) Mentors:

— hold a valid aircraft maintenance licence (AML) issued in accordance with this Annex or a valid and fully compliant with ICAO Annex 1 AML in accordance with Appendix IV to Annex II (Part-145), which is acceptable to the competent authority;

— have been holding, for at least 1 year, an AML in the same category, when compared to the one for which the OJT is being mentored, that is endorsed with a type rating appropriate to exercise the privileges on the related aircraft;

— have the necessary release or sign-off privileges in the maintenance organisation where the OJT is performed;

— have experience in training other people (such as being apprenticeship instructors, instructors in accordance with Annex IV (Part-147), having received train-the-trainer courses or having any other comparable national qualification, or having a training to do so that is acceptable to the competent authority).

(ii) Assessors of the final assessment:

— hold a valid AML issued in accordance with this Annex or a valid and fully compliant with ICAO Annex 1 AML in accordance with Appendix IV to Annex II (Part-145), which is acceptable to the competent authority;

— have been holding, for at least 3 years, an AML in the same category, when compared to the one for which the OJT is being assessed, endorsed with the same or similar aircraft type rating;

— have experience and/or have received training in assessing others (such as being apprenticeship instructors, examiners in accordance with Annex IV (Part-147), having received train-the- trainer courses, or having any other comparable national qualification, or having a training to do so that is acceptable to the competent authority);

— shall not have been involved as a mentor of the applicant in the OJT; when the assessor has taken part in the OJT performance, then an independent observer shall be present during the OJT assessment.

6.5 OJT documentation and records

Article 2

‘management systems harmonisation’

Article 2(u)

The definition ‘complex motor powered aircraft’

Article 6

The title changed as “Requirements applicable to training organisations and competent authorities issuing licenses”

Changes regarding issuance of C of R before /after of Deadline 12 June 2024 in terms of course and examination.(66.B.200)

?

→ Regulation (EU) 2023/989 does not envision changes in the Type Training requirements, so trainings started before 12 June 2024 are to be finished according the already approved programs

→ All type training certificates of recognition for training finalised after 12 June 2024 are to conform to the new EASA Form 149b

→ When the training and examination/assessment is finalised before 12 June 2024, but the certificate is issued after 12 June 2024, the updated EASA Form 149b is to be used

Implementation issues – OJT

→ Regulation (EU) 2023/989 introduces new requirements for On-the-Job Training performance in Appendix III to Part-66

→ All OJT exercises approved and started before 12 June 2024 can be finalised as already approved.

https://www.dhirubhai.net/pulse/sofema-online-considers-key-updates-structured-ojt-part-66-ack3f/

Features of COMMISSION IMPLEMENTING REGULATION (EU) 2025/111 of 23 January 2025

1.???? Proposition of new regulatory framework and safety risk addressing certain non-conventional aircraft, referred to as new air mobility aircraft (primarily emerging from recent industrial developments)

2.???? Minimizing gap to address other power plants such as electrical engines or hybrid one, to expedite the introduction of small electrical aeroplanes and its associated maintenance licenses.

3.???? The definition of complex motor-powered aircraft was amended as the definition necessitates intricate/illustrated features to be name as “CMPA”, whereas the it is not true for every aspect.

4.???? The amendments are based on Opinion No 04/2024 ( 3 ) of the European Union Aviation Safety Agency in accordance with Article 75(2), point (b), and Article 76(1) of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139

5.???? Regulation applicable from 13 February 2026.

Article 2

a non-conventional aircraft as added to the definition ‘complex motor powered aircraft’ also the definition was added at (1) (c) (v-y)

Article 3

The requirements of Annex Vb (Part-ML) for other than complex motor-powered aircraft was changed; paragraphs 2 and 3

Article 5

A provision has been given for B1.1 or B1.2 license holder to endorse and certify an aeroplane with electric power plant and MTOM below 5 700 kg until 13 February 2028

Annex III

66.A.3 Licence categories and subcategories

(a) (2) B1.E Aeroplanes with electric power plant and MTOM below 5 700 kg,

66.A.5

‘(1) Group 1 is composed of:

(i) aeroplanes certified for a MTOM exceeding 5 700 kg

(ii) helicopters certified for a MTOM exceeding 3 175 kg

(iii) gas airships other than ELA2; (iv) non-conventional aircraft; and (v) aircraft equipped with fly-by-wire systems

Group 2: aircraft other than those in Group 1 belonging to the following subgroups:

(iv) subgroup 2E: aeroplanes with electric power plant.’

Appendix I

(b) was reserved in 2023/989 now places as :

‘7.4 Potential safety hazards when working with electrical systems and protective equipment

(c)

(i) the title of Module 11 replaced as "‘MODULE 11. AEROPLANE AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES AND SYSTEM"

(ii)‘11.8 Fire protection (ATA 26)

(a) Fire and smoke detection system and fire-extinguishing systems

b) Portable fire extinguisher

(iii) ‘11.10 Fuel systems (ATA 28, ATA 47)

(a) Systems layout;

(b) Fuel handling;

(c) Indication and warnings;

(d) Special systems;

(e) Balancing

d)

‘14.1 Engines (a) Turbine engines; 1 (b) Auxiliary power units (APUs); (c) Piston engines; (d) Electric and hybrid power plants and auxiliar systems; (e) Engine control

(f)

the following table corresponding to Module 18 is added: ‘MODULE 18. ELECTRIC POWER PLANT

MODULE 18. ELECTRIC POWER PLANT

18.1 Fundamentals 18.2 Engine performance 18.3 Engine construction 18.4 Electric energy system 18.4.1 Batteries and accessories 18.4.2 Fuel cells and accessories 18.4.3 Power distribution systems 18.4.4 Electronic engine control 18.5 Engine indication systems 18.6 Power plant installation 18.7 Engine monitoring and ground operation 18.8 Engine storage and preservation

(8) Appendix II is amended as follows:

(a) point 2.11 is replaced as follows:

‘2.11. MODULE 11 AEROPLANE AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS

Category A1: 108 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 135 minutes.

Category A2: 72 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 90 minutes.

Category B1.1: 140 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 175 minutes.

Category B1.2 and B1.E: 100 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 125 minutes.

Category B3: 60 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 75 minutes.’;

(b) the following point 2.18 is added: ‘2.18. MODULE 18 – ELECTRIC POWER PLANT Category

B1.E: 76 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 95 minutes.’;

Appendix VI, EASA Form 26, is amended as follows: